so then how can they state its 292,201,338 to one.
because this is the odds of a single ticket.
a single ticket you have five chances at the first Powerball coming out of the cage then you have four chances to get the second then three to get the third then 2 to get he second finally 1 hits correctly. and one to hit the power ball
but not every ticket has the same chance say your second ticket has only one variance the one ball that comes out of the cage.
you should gain one better of the established odds this is not true 292,201,337 to one in this example I will show the variance of three tickets with only the first number changed.
the Math :
ex 1 69/5*68/4*67/3*66/2*65*26= 292,201,338
ex 2 69/6*68/4*67/3*66/2*65*26= 243,501,115
ex 3 69/7*68/4*67/3*66/2*65*26= 208,715,241
the logic would be 292 million tickets but example 2 states I have to buy 486,million ticket ex three 600 million tickets
now what if the variance was with power ball number
same white balls and a different Powerball.
ex1 69/5*68/4*67/3*66/2*65*26=292,201,338
ex 2 " " " " " 26/2=146,100,669
ex3 69/5*68/4*67/2*66/2*65*26/3=97,00,446
so the figures for a single change drastically
so you want every number you reduce your chance to state the 120 and all subsequent factors a small number of tickets has
69/69*68/68*67/67*66/66*26/26= 1 you win onehundred percent of the time.
=all 35,064,160,560
this is how powerball selling an estimated 2 billion tickets still not have a winning ticket. and why no one could ever cover the spread.