Someone please help

I placed a wager on Spain -1/2 goal at Betjamaica.  Thinking I had won after the game ended 1-0 in OT, I found that my bet had been graded as a loss.  I called customer service and they were not able to answer my question so I will ask it here.

If the 1/2 goal lines only include regulation and injury time, but not OT, what is the difference between the money line and the 1/2 goal lines?  In other words, why would anyone bet the 1/2 goal line versus the money line if they are for the same thing?

In my case, the Spain money line was +114.  The 1/2 goal line was +108.  I took the goal line on the presumption that it included OT.  Otherwise, they would be the same bet and have different odds.  Please someone explain this to me.

Thanks

You lose. The game was 0-0 at the end of regulation. Spain -1/2 is a loser.

No you needed to bet on Spain to lift the trophy which would have covered extra time and penalties

ML & -0.5 handicap are 90 minutes only

Its the same bet thats why. Taking them ML reg and taking them -1/2 reg is the same bet.

If its the same bet, why are there different odds (+108 versus +114)?

No idea, but -1/2 is the same bet as ML reg. They should have the same juice.

It would make more sense if the 1/2 goal line was for the game and as shootouts don't count as goals, it would include everything but shootouts.  Why would a book offer a 1/2 goal line if it is the same thing as the money line?  It makes no sense.

Yes it does. Just because you dont understand what you're betting doesnt meen it doesnt make sense.

You are absolutely correct in that I apparently did not understand what I was betting.  That's my fault.  Just curious, why do the books offer a -1/2 goal line?  I can see a +1/2 goal line as a tie would be a win.  However, I still maintain that a -1/2 goal line makes no sense if it is the same thing as the moneyline.

Just pick the better price between the two.  Know what you are betting before you bet it...