I am not used to betting on soccer. Someone please explain why the lines are thus

Question

On 5Dimes, Portugal is favored. If I bet them on the ML, they are favored -127, and the U.S. is +367! YIKES what a huge difference. A Draw is +310, which I assume means if you wager on that, the game has to end in a draw or you lose. That's ok. But then, you could take Portugal -1/2 a goal, but you have to lay even more juice than the Moneyline, If you lay half a goal, you have to pay -136 in juice! U.S. is +1/2 at +116.

Why on earth would someone pay -136 AND lay 1/2 a goal, when you could just pay -127 and if not risk a loss on a tie?

casheasy · Answer

On 5Dimes, Portugal is favored. If I bet them on the ML, they are favored -127, and the U.S. is +367! YIKES what a huge difference. A Draw is +310, which I assume means if you wager on that, the game has to end in a draw or you lose. That's ok. But then, you could take Portugal -1/2 a goal, but you have to lay even more juice than the Moneyline, If you lay half a goal, you have to pay -136 in juice! U.S. is +1/2 at +116.

Why on earth would someone pay -136 AND lay 1/2 a goal, when you could just pay -127 and if not risk a loss on a tie?

mrdish33 · Answer

[Quote: Originally Posted by casheasy]  &#xD;&#xA; &#xD;&#xA;On 5Dimes, Portugal is favored. If I bet them on the ML, they are favored -127, and the U.S. is &#x2B;367! YIKES what a huge difference. A Draw is &#x2B;310, which I assume means if you wager on that, the game has to end in a draw or you lose. That&#x27;s ok. But then, you could take Portugal -1/2 a goal, but you have to lay even more juice than the Moneyline, If you lay half a goal, you have to pay -136 in juice!   U.S. is &#x2B;1/2 at &#x2B;116. &#xD;&#xA; &#xD;&#xA;Why on earth would someone pay -136 AND lay 1/2 a goal, when you could just pay -127 and if not risk a loss on a tie?  [/Quote]hey casheasy wat up ? wat is your pick ?

casheasy · Answer

That was supposed to read, Why pay -136 and lay 1/2 a goal, when you could simply pay -127 on the ML and not risk a loss if they tie? &#xD;&#xA; &#xD;&#xA;What am I not aware of in  betting?

casheasy · Answer

Great to see you Dish. Not sure yet. I am thinking I will bet on Portugal.  "I BELIEVE THAT WE WON&#x27;T WIN!" LOL &#xD;&#xA;Just have to see what this is all about.

BritBull · Answer

[Quote: Originally Posted by casheasy]  That was supposed to read, Why pay -136 and lay 1/2 a goal, when you could simply pay -127 on the ML and not risk a loss if they tie? &#xD;&#xA; &#xD;&#xA;What am I not aware of in  betting?  [/Quote]Soccer ML isn&#x27;t the same as baseball, simple as that. What you are taking about is called DNB(draw no bet) or &#x2B;0 asian handicap.

casheasy · Answer

So if a draw happens, then no bet? Nothing weird about that. But my question is why would someone risk losing more by laying 0.5 goals, when you could simply play the moneyline and not risk losing if there is a draw?

BrickShot · Answer

if it&#x27;s a draw, you&#x27;re ML bet loses. smh

I am not used to betting on soccer. Someone please explain why the lines are thus

Hot Forum Topics