I needed to bring this up because I just noticed something, and it's not jiving one bit...
In the original V1 MLB system, Morrison gives series plays based on one team sweeping the previous three game series between the two teams.
He divides the plays into official plays and unofficial plays based on some creteria having to do with RPI. His criteria is if the teams are closely matched in RPI (differential of less than 0.010 - I have heard this to be 0.015 recently), then it is an official play. Otherwise, it becomes an unofficial play.
Well, then, here are some facts about the four new series starting up tonight.
1) Tampa Bay vs. Texas. Differential 0.011. Official play.
2) Seattle vs. Cleveland. Differential 0.026. Official play.
3) NY Mets vs. Philadelphia. Differential 0.029. Unofficial play.
4) Boston vs. NY Yankees. Differential 0.010. Unofficial play.
OK, so what doesn't jive is this:
If the RPI differential cut off is 0.015 now, then how in the world does the Boston (playing at home) become an unofficial play especially since the Tampa Bay series high a high RPI differential than the Boston series? Is it because the Yankees are the best RPI team in MLB and basically have owned Boston in their own park recently?
Also, what in the world is up with Seattle's series with Cleveland? Seattle is on the road here and the RPI differential is 0.026. Cleaveland swept Seatlle, this is why we are choosing Seattle this time, and it is an official play?
At least, the Mets series at home with the Phillies is correct, and we will have a potential V3 play in Philadelphia if the Mets win the [A] bet tonight.
The Tampa Bay series at home with Texas, I can see being an official series.
Is there something else to Morrison's criteria he is not letting on? Has anyone else caught this in the past?